When …….

When does a man become a “husband” and a woman become a “wife” in God’s eyes?

Jesus confronts the woman at the well and asks the woman to bring out her husband. She replies that she has no husband.

Jesus said, “and the man you now have is not your husband. What you have just said is quite true.

Why? Why did Jesus say he was not her husband?

When does a man become a “husband” and a woman become a “wife”?

What would Jesus have said to the woman to demonstrate to her “how” she could take the man she is living with to be her husband? What would Jesus say?

This is a very popular slogan among judeo-christians — What Would Jesus Do?

What would Jesus say to the woman so that she could be ‘man and wife’ with the man she is currently living with?

Please …… someone tell me!

My brother recently tried. He implied it is “intent”. “Integrity”.

Ok……so what does that mean in Practice?

Just “mean it”? Really mean what you say? Ok. But, do you have to actually say something? If “something” then what? What do I have to say?

15 years asking this question and I have only received ONE response.

But, for some reason, I am the one being irrational.

“Sexual Immorality” will bar to door to Eternal Rest with our Heavenly Father.

Surely ……………… “marriage” or “how” to marry should be very, very easy to understand.

Eternal Life is at stake!

We can’t just allow “man” to determine what is marriage.

God joins in marriage. How does He do that?

Posted in Uncategorized | 18 Comments

2 Simple Questions

When a virgin girl has sex with a man —  is she ‘known’ by the man?

When a virgin girl has sex with a man —  is she now ‘one flesh’ with the man?

The answer to both questions for those who are intellectually honest is YES.  But yet people today have no problem with taking a woman who is “known” by another man for a wife.  A non-virgin woman is “one flesh” with a man and this doesn’t seem to bother anyone.  When you take a non-virgin woman for a wife, you are literally sleeping with another man’s wife.  You are sleeping with a woman who is ‘one flesh’ with another man.  You might say, “she is not a wife however.”  Ok….so how does she become a wife?

Just recently I was challenged on a youtube video that a girl will become a wife only by covenant.  When I pressed this person to define the covenant, he said a covenant is a promise.  When I pressed this person to provide the parameters for such a promise, he couldn’t answer.  This person will have to admit that it is up to “man” to decide whether a non-virgin girl is a wife or not.  But then the same person would proudly declare that it is God who joins in marriage.  Such a person is very confused.  God joins in marriage he says, but marriage only occurs when there is a “promise”.  So …. what are the parameters of this “promise”?


If you are married and your wife was not a virgin —- stop everything and earnestly seek Truth.

If you are thinking about “marriage”, please study the arguments presented here.  And read the comments.

“Marriage” is the second most important decision a man or woman makes in their lifetime.

Why do you simply trust your Pastor or your Church or “Tradition” to determine how to be married; and who is eligible?

Did you ever once consider how does one marry i.e., necessary procedures/rituals???

Should we not consult the Scriptures?  “Sexual Immorality” will bar the door to Eternal Rest with our Heavenly Father.

Most everyone living today has had sex, or is having sex presumably “married”.

Did you ask the Father if your sexual relationship is pleasing to Him???

If you have any Spirit left………….keep reading.

Posted in Uncategorized | 3 Comments

Scripture Declares………….(and the Rubric)

Only Virgin girls and or Widowed women have a Biblical Authority to take a Husband.

Scripture reveals that when a virgin girl has sex with a man, she becomes “Known” by that man.  She becomes “Joined” to the man as One Flesh.  Society should recognize said couple as man and wife.  Man’s failure to recognize them man and wife is not God’s fault.

Paul declares — “There is a difference between the wife and the virgin.  The unmarried woman cares about the things of the Lord…But she who is married cares about the things of the world.”  1 Corinthians 7:34

Question — who is the ‘unmarried’ according to Paul?  Answer — the Virgin.

Scripture reveals that only “Death” will separate the One Flesh Union.  Hence why Widows are the other category of women who have the Biblical authority to take a husband.

Paul admonishes the Corinthians that only ‘death’ will sever this one flesh union.  He writes —

“A wife is bound by law as long as her husband lives; but if her husband dies, she is at liberty to be married…”  1 Corinthians 7:39

A more thorough explanation —

“For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives.  But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband.  So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man.”  Romans 7:2-3


It is my assertion that if one applies the following Rubric to all Scripture pertaining to Sex and Marriage, one will find perfect balance and harmony.

Rubric —  When a Virgin girl has sex with a man, she becomes ‘joined’ to that man as one flesh.  She is now ‘known’ by the man.  Only Death can sever this union.

This is God’s Natural Law which is Universal.  It applies to all Generations.

The second part of the Rubric is:  Society (even Biblical ) should recognize said couple ‘man and wife’.  The non-virgin woman can only be with one man and it be righteous.  Sex with any other man would be Sexual Immorality.   

Apply this rubric to all Scripture pertaining to sex and marriage and you will find perfect harmony.

The Story of Jacob, Laban, Leah and Rachel is but one example.

The “woman at the well” is another story people will use to argue that my thesis is wrong.  But what does that example really prove?  I go into more detail on the “About” page; but simply: the woman at the well is in the situation described by Paul in Romans 7:2-3.  She is living with a man who is not her husband because she is still “one flesh” with a different man/husband.  It is very simple.  But men try to complicate it and or assume our tradition of marriage is the same as theirs.   They assume that all that the woman will need to do is just have a proper “ceremony” and then she will be married to the man and Jesus would not have said what He said.  So, I have to ask the question again — “how would she do that?”  “How would she ‘marry’?  This…….I have never received an answer.

If you have found this Blog and you are quickened by the Holy Spirit as to it’s message, please make a comment and if you would like, I’d be happy to contact you personally.

If you feel I am in error, please make your argument and help me understand how I have misunderstood Scripture.  “Iron Sharpens Iron”

Sincerely.  In the Truth of His Word, Jeff

Posted in Uncategorized | 25 Comments

Did you know???

Did you know that there is not ONE example of a non-virgin woman having a husband and is considered Righteous?

Excluding Widows of course.

Challenge —- Find me one example of a non-virgin woman or a non-widowed woman who has a husband and the Scriptures portray this marriage as a righteous union.

Should we not find this very, very important?

“Christians” just assume the bible is full of stories of non-virgin women having a husband and all is honkey dory.

I looked and I can’t find one example.

That should prick your conscience (Soul).

Posted in Uncategorized | 1 Comment

God Told Hosea To Do What?

Below is an article regarding Hosea and Gomer.  The author draws a few conclusions that I have not yet  studied in full detail.  I will BOLD the parts of this article in which I support 100% regarding the question as to whether Gomer was a harlot ‘prior’ to her marriage to Hosea.  Please study thoughtfully and carefully.

God Told Hosea To Do What?  By Edward Ridenour

In addition to the unfortunate Scriptural misinterpretation, by the church, in believing that the church is the bride of Christ, which influences false perceptions of Biblical marriage and fornication, there is another erred perception, which does the same. This horrific perception is that God in the book of Hosea had instructed the Prophet Hosea to marry (sexually intimate) a prostitute. In my view, those who believe this theory have seriously failed to consider God’s holy character and His Word. It is a theory that truly displays a lack of understanding in Biblical marriage and its sanctity, which He designed, as well as the consequences of its violation.

The church has used this prophetic book to support their perception of the church being the bride of Christ and that Christ is constantly forgiving the church for its sins, past and present, which Hosea symbolized by marrying Gomer and taking her back. This is based upon the interpretation that Hosea supposedly married a prostitute (Gomer) on Yahweh’s command and, then, she continued in her whoredom, which Hosea forgives, taking her back, works with her, and continued to be a husband to her, without any consequence.

This incorrect theory, then, is applied to the attitude of conduct, which they say should be displayed within a Christian marriage of a man and woman when one of them commits fornication against the other. The innocent spouse is to be like Hosea (Christ-like – forgiving), and take their fornicating spouse back if they repent, even though Gomer never showed any indication of repentance.

Although they wouldn’t admit it, this Scripture is used by many, similar to the bride of Christ idea, to brow-beat the innocent spouse into taking the violating spouse back, condemning them as not being Christ-like if they don’t. Others use it as a justification in taking their fornicating spouse back. Anyone who has read my book “It’s Good For A Man Not To Touch A Woman” or my articles in this blog know the reason why this is a huge mistake.

I have already outlined my reasons for the church being in error in believing that the bride of Christ is the church and how applying that theory in the dealings of marriage and fornication is damnable. Now I will outline my reasons why the church is in total error in their interpretation of this Scripture and how it fosters a wrong perception, and must not be applied to Biblical marriage precepts.

I concede to the premise that the book of Hosea reveals God’s love, mercy, forgiveness, and redemption. This is evident, but must be put in a proper perspective.

The gist of the message and marriage to Gomer was mostly to prophesy God’s view of His relationship He and Israel have had within their union from the beginning to the present. It also points to the promises of hope for Israel in the near future, and to the redemption that would come, further out, to all men through the work of Jesus Christ – those circumcised in the heart by faith. Howbeit, until then, there was going to be horrendous judgment and punishment upon Israel and Judah for their wickedness. As one commentator described it “This picture is one of a loving husband who yearns desperately to have a faithful wife. Israel, however, will have none of it, and the consequences of its sins must play themselves out, although hope for the future is never lost.”

Isn’t it interesting that these aspects of judgment and punishment (consequences), which is no small percentage of the prophet’s message, never seem to get much attention by those who use Hosea to support the church as the bride of Christ, nor as an advocated mindset to be exercised by an innocent spouse as the rule when fornicated against by their unfaithful spouse. They only seem to hear what they want to hear and see what they want to see. This, along with a lack of knowledge, makes for some false doctrines and applications to life, particularly marriage and its violation.

Without writing a whole commentary on the book of Hosea, I will just point out some of the main points where errors in interpretation are vivid:

Firstly, the relationship that God had with Israel was not in the form of husband/wife. Actually, God’s wife according to Scripture was Jerusalem, which was in Judah at this time in history. Neither is the prophecy of Hosea an instruction on how to deal with an errant spouse. The marriage to Gomer only symbolized God’s marriage (connection, union) to Israel in His oneness with them through the covenant of the law. The oneness He initiates with the church today is through the covenant (redemption) of Jesus Christ. This relationship is not husband/wife either.

On this earth, marriage (the oneness generated by two, through sexual intimacy) between a man and woman depicts, most distinctly, the oneness connection that God’s people experience with Him. We are married (joined) to Him, yet not as His wife, but as His body, like a wife is to her husband. It is a holy connection. Once born again, the church (made up of each member) is connected to Him as His body through His Spirit, once born again, as is also the wife connected to her husband as his body once they are sexually intimate. However, if you have read my book or articles you will know that both of these unions can be fornicated.

The earthly marriage union illustrates, for the lack of a better word, our oneness with Christ. Both of these institutions of oneness are a mystery. That is because each union is enacted by God Himself and is not seen by the human eye nor implemented by man.

Secondly, to think that God would entreat a prophet to commit an abominable act of fornication by being sexually intimate with a prostitute is ridiculous. Only those who: 1) Have no respect for God’s holy and righteous character, i.e., “…to cause their sons and their daughters to pass through the fire unto Molech; which I commanded them not, neither come it into my mind, that they should do this abomination, to cause Judah to sin” (Jeremiah 32:35, KJV) and “Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man” (James 1:13); 2) have no respect and knowledge to how horrific the sinful act of fornication is bodily and as idolatry could presume such an atrocity.

Should we believe that God would direct a holy man into committing this abomination (fornication) with a prostitute (see my previous articles or book) for the purpose of reproving the abominations of others? How could Hosea be the instrument for exposing and condemning the sin of Israel when He would be just as guilty as they? Where is the sense and wisdom in this, as the means for Israel to change? How does one marry a prostitute and then condemn her afterward for being a prostitute, considering it shameful?

This crazy idea is also like certain so-called ministries today where one spouse commits fornication against the other spouse, are taken back, and, then, set out to tell others that their marriage is now better than before. Anymore, to have a viable marriage ministry one must commit the sin of fornication beforehand. Then you are qualified to be a help to others. “Let us sin, so that grace may abound!” “Let’s all commit fornicated affairs so our marriages will be better!”   This is a sensual philosophy of the world being spewed out by the church, which even many unbelievers will not accept. Shouldn’t the ones who are faithful to their spouses be the ones who are true ministers of marriage, especially to unbelievers? Hosea was the true sinless minister. He represented and exemplified the true, righteous, and faithful God.

For God to direct Hosea to commit this defiling act would have been the most unrighteous thing for a righteous God to do. The holy prophet wouldn’t be so holy any longer, and would be just as worthy of condemnation. I ask… would the church be so ready to accept God commanding a prophet to commit homosexuality, instead of adultery, for the purpose of instruction? I don’t believe so! I would hope not!

The reason I made the claim as I just did is because Gomer was not a prostitute when Hosea married her. The book of Hosea itself makes this fact very clear for these reasons:

1) They, who make the claim that Gomer was a prostitute when Hosea married her, read Hosea 1:2&3 erringly. It is not saying to go take a wife that is already in the sin of whoredom, but to go take a wife among people who are and are the children of whoredoms (idolaters), who will later become a prostitute and have illegitimate children, as Israel had prostituted itself and produced illegitimate (idolatrous, lawless) children. For Israel “hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord.”

2) Verse three says, “So he went and took Gomer the daughter of Diblaim…”  When one understands Biblical marriage, it is understood that if Gomer had had other men, she would not have been referred to as “the daughter of” her father, but as a man’s wife or a harlot. To identify her as “the daughter of” was to indicate that she was still a virgin under her father’s authority within his house. She had not yet known a man. It is this virgin that Hosea covenanted for and married (sexual intimacy).

3) Verse three is also backed up by Hosea 2:7 saying, “…I will go and return to my first husband…” Her first husband was Hosea to whom she would return. Otherwise, if Hosea wasn’t her first husband who would be? Who was her second, third, fourth… husbands? If you know Biblical marriage, like I have been teaching, you’ll know how to answer this. It speaks of her sexual intimacies as husbands and not through covenant, vows, or documents. It’s a similar situation as when Jesus encountered the woman at the well and said to her, “For thou hast had five husbands; and he whom thou now hast is not thy husband…” (John 4:18). Just as God was the first for Israel and Israel the first for God, so was Hosea the first for Gomer and Gomer the first for Hosea.

4) Israel was not defiled when God chose and formed a nation of Him, “When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt” (Hosea 11:1). Israel was a young innocent child when God called (married) him out of Egypt, not a defiled fornicated one. Israel was unformed in Egypt and, then, formed and nurtured by God when called out and given His law. Israel, the nation, fornicated itself afterward; just as Gomer did. “I found Isreal like grapes in the wilderness; I saw your fathers as the first ripe in the fig tree at her first time: but they went to Baal-peor, and separated themselves unto that shame; and their abominations were according as they loved” (Hosea 9:10).

5) The first child Jezreel was Hosea’s son before Gomers adultery. He represented the righteous seed that was and would be sown in Israel. The other children Lo-ruhamah and Lo-ammi were children from her fornications. This is seen in Hosea 2:1-5, where he says, “Say ye [Jezreel] unto your brethren, Ammi; and to your sisters, Ruhamah. Plead with your mother, plead; for she is not my wife, neither am I her husband…for they be the children of whoredoms. For their mother hath played the harlot; she that conceived them hath done shamefully…”

Note: How could God say that Gomer conceived these children, Lo-ammi and Lo-ruhamah, shamefully and yet not declare the same concerning Jezreel, if she was a harlot before Hosea took her? Wouldn’t it have been just as shameful for him to have taken her as a harlot, also? Does a covenant or a marriage certificate, as some might say would make a difference, cause a harlot to not be a harlot anymore, Biblically? Do these procedures and documents wipe away all fornications (adutleries)? Does God’s Word depict such things? The reason there was no wrong with Hosea taking Gomer and bearing Jezreel is because, when he was conceived the union was a true marriage, not fornication.

Thirdly, many regard what is said in Hosea 3:1 signals Hosea taking Gomer back to be his wife. Well, interpreting verse 1 as meaning this is not at all correct. I can only say, for one to draw such a conclusion originates from the misunderstanding of Biblical marriage, as well as not acknowledging factual declarations from the book of Hosea itself. This verse itself is rife with signaling that he does not take her back as a wife.

Here is what verse 1 says, “Then said the Lord unto me, Go yet, love a woman beloved of her friend, yet an adulteress, according to the love of the Lord toward the children of Israel , who look to other gods, and love flagons of wine.”

Here are the reasons to dispute those who say Hosea took Gomer back:

1) Gomer is referred to as an “adulteress” and not as his wife. Romans 7:2,3 says, “For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth…So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married [sexually intimate] to another man, she shall be called an adulteress…” This means she no longer bears the label or distinction as a wife, but now bears the distinction of “adulteress.” An adulteress is not a wife of one man, but of more than one and, therefore, a fornicator of marriage. The husband cannot take her back. I already indicated how that Hosea was her first husband. Hosea, her original husband, is now no longer her husband. Their holy marriage (union) had been defiled (made illegitimate) by her fornication (adultery) with her “lovers [sexual].” The “love” God entreats Hosea to now show is not sexual in nature. That is the perversion of our culture, adopted by the church.

2) Hosea was commanded to love her and care for her, even though she was no longer his wife, indicated by the title of “adulteress.” This estranged marital relationship between them, because of her fornicated affairs, is compared to the same relationship, which God had with Israel at this time. Israel’s fornication is declared in the latter part of verse 1 above saying, “…the children of Israel, who look to other gods, and love flagons of wine.” This means the relationship that Israel had with God has been put asunder through their idolatrous fornication, although not as a husband/wife, but as a God and His people. He still loved them, but it would be an estranged relationship. He would care for them, yet, they would not benefit from all that they had when they were His alone. They would be “…without a king, and without a prince, and without a sacrifice, and without an image, and without an ephod, and without teraphim” (Hosea 3:4).

3) Hosea emphatically stated that Gomer was not his wife saying, “Say ye unto your brethren, Ammi, and to your sisters, Ruhama, Plead with your mother, plead; for she is not my wife, neither am I her husband…” (Hosea 2:1-3). He is telling Jezreel, his blood son from Gomer when she was his wife, to tell his half brother and half sister that their mother, who had them by another man or other men through her adulteries, is now no longer his wife. He also declares that for her to save herself (“Plead with your mother, plead“), she must stop living in fornication, if she doesn’t want to face harsh judgment. The only answer when fornication is committed is to repent and live celibate. This is the only way to not commit fornication again.

4) For the Scripture to declare that Gomer would “go back to her first husband” and Hosea to declare that “she is not my wife and I am not her husband” indicates that she had been put-away by Hosea. Therefore, for God to instruct Hosea to take her back would be forcing him to commit a declared abomination of violating the forbidden law of not taking back a spouse who was remarried after being put-away. So, according to the church, God causes Hosea to defile his self twice with this whorish woman through acts that were an abomination before God. How pathetic.

He couldn’t take her again or he would fornicate himself with her. What Hosea actually did resembled the sacrifice of God caring for Israel at the present time, and yet not having them as a people or a nation that are His in a holy way. The covenant of Christ and His Spirit would eventually change this situation including both Jew and Gentile, declared in Hosea 2:14-23. This is the new and intended Israel – the descendants of Abraham by faith.

Therefore, in chapter 3:2 the love that is shown by Hosea to Gomer is to purchase her as a man would purchase a prostitute, providing for her needs, yet not joining himself to her in a sexual way as he did when he married her. Through this possession, she is to stay celibate and he also commits to staying celibate along with her in order to care for her. He sacrifices both his finances and his physical sexual needs for her well-being. This is the true love story of sacrifice that people should be writing about.

I will close with these two Scripture verses:

“…therefore the people that doth not understand shall fall” (Hosea 4:14);

“Who is wise, and he shall understand these things? prudent, and he shall know them? for the ways of the Lord are right, and the just shall walk in them: but the transgressors shall fall therein” (Hosea 14:9).

There is forgiveness, but however, the sin of fornication produces consequences.


Anything that is not ‘bold’ above does not necessarily mean that I disagree with Ridenour’s opinion.  I just haven’t had the time yet to fully study his opinion.

I simply post this article as just one more ‘proofs’ of the ridiculous belief/claim that a non-virgin girl/woman is eligible for a righteous marriage to a different man.  Anytime I challenge men and women who have violated the principle/law of the necessity of Virginity in marriage, their likely first response is to say arrogantly, “Well…..Hosea married a prostitute, so there, case closed.”

Gomer was indeed a virgin when Hosea ‘took’ her as his wife.    The passage Hosea 2:7 is proof of that.  The word ‘husband’ is simply a translation of ‘man’.  Using the word ‘husband’ is no great violation….but I can anticipate my brother coming back with the argument that verse 7 simply proves that Hosea was Gomer’s first husband — not that Gomer was not a virgin.  But the passage could easily and should read — I will go and return to my first man.  Meaning — her first lover.  The Scriptures tell us that when a virgin girl has sex with a man she becomes ‘known’ by that man*.  If I were to play the devils advocate and argue my brother’s pov, he would suggest the word ‘first’ has no consequence.  If we are to take “first husband’ literally, then we would have to conclude that Gomer took other husbands.  If Hosea was Gomer’s ‘first’ husband, then she would have had to take second, even third husbands.    But the Scriptures imply no such thing.  Gomer simply “whored” herself out — slept with other men — after Hosea.  She did not marry ‘ceremoniously’ other ‘husbands’ as my brother would have to INSIST is true in order for the passage to make any sense.

*”And there was one Anna, a prophetess, the daughter of Phanuel, of the tribe of Aser: she was of a great age, and had lived with an husband seven years from her virginity.” Luke 2:36

“The woman was very beautiful, a virgin; no man had known her. She went down to the spring, filled her jar and came up again.” Genesis 24:16

For those who sleep at night with the comfort of believing Gomer was a non-virgin prior to her union to Hosea, as justification for their similar situation, are simply deceiving themselves and perverting the Character of God.

Their argument is “weak” at best, but yet these lovers of sin hold Gomer up as the standard for Christian Living.

Their second blasphemous attempt to justify their sin is to suggest the ‘Woman at the Well’ was also not a virgin; and or had multiple marriages in which Jesus approved.  Jesus concludes His encounter with the woman by telling her — Sin no more.  Jesus did NOT tell her to go have a ‘ceremony’ with the man she is currently living with.

Posted in Uncategorized | 3 Comments